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"if a human experimenter can make decisions independently of past events, then the particle can also make a free choice"

The article does not make clear how "free choice" is different from "random chance" -- at least not to me.




http://www.cs.auckland.ac.nz/~jas/one/freewill-theorem.html

  When the floor was opened for questions, one member of the 
  audience questioned Dr Conway's use of the term "Free 
  Will". She asked whether Dr Conway was "confusing 
  randomness and free will".

  In a passionate reply, Dr Conway said that what he
  had shown, with mathematical precision, that if a  
  given property was exhibited by an experimenter than 
  that same property was exhibited by particles. He had 
  been careful when constructing his theorem to use the same 
  term "free will" in the antecedent and consequent of his
  theorem. He said he did not really care what people chose
  to call it. Some people choose to call it "free will" only
  when there is some judgment involved. He said he felt that
  "free will" was freer if it was unhampered by judgment - 
  that it was almost a whim. "If you don't like the term Free 
  Will, call it Free Whim - this is the Free Whim Theorem".




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