> The definition of "force" he was trying to get across meant that there was no such thing as "centrifugal force".
So, the definition of "force" he was trying to get across was different from the one created by Newton and used by every physicist and engineer? Why did he ignore Newtonian fictitious forces? Because he didn't want to explain them? If so, what was he doing there?
So, the definition of "force" he was trying to get across was different from the one created by Newton and used by every physicist and engineer? Why did he ignore Newtonian fictitious forces? Because he didn't want to explain them? If so, what was he doing there?