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I think you are confused.

The original assertion was (basically): "Just because you make something part of the law, doesn't make it free".

Note it was not even an assertion made about german law, but the law in general. There was no support for this statement offered, just a bare assertion that this was true.

I pointed out this was not true in the US, and probably not true in plenty of places. I specifically asked if there was any caselaw to support the assertion.

The response, rather than to offer support for the bare assertion, was to point out i cited the US. Which was kind of besides the point.

So I went to the trouble of looking up german copyright law, and posting what it says about it. At that point, I felt like I was essentially doing the work of the parent for them, and pointed out again that maybe they'd like to support their still bare assertion about the law.

So yes, there was something to support, and at least as of this writing, it's still not supported.




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