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π+1−π = 1.0000000000000

But

π−π = 0

I think I understand why, from the article, but wouldn't it be "easy" (probably not, but curious about why) to simplify the first expression to (1-1)π + 1 then 0π + 1 and finally just 1 before calculating a result?



that would require an algebraic solver which is definitely possible but more complex than really warranted for a "basic" calculator




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