But
π−π = 0
I think I understand why, from the article, but wouldn't it be "easy" (probably not, but curious about why) to simplify the first expression to (1-1)π + 1 then 0π + 1 and finally just 1 before calculating a result?
But
π−π = 0
I think I understand why, from the article, but wouldn't it be "easy" (probably not, but curious about why) to simplify the first expression to (1-1)π + 1 then 0π + 1 and finally just 1 before calculating a result?