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> If money had such a large influences then why did a Presidential candidate who spent about half the other candidate win?

Because there was more enthusiasm for the politics and/or they spent it better? But ask yourself if someone with even more support for policy but $0 could have won. And if not, why.

> Any human interaction can result in people "owning favors".

Economic favors we usually call "corruption".

When I look around the planet I find few places (among western liberal democracies) that have the same sickness with money in politics.

If you look at "democratic health" as e.g. "how many in a parliament were born to (very) rich parents", it feels like there is room for improvement.




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