Can someone explain how a log scale could work for this sort of stacked graph? (Serious question, not rhetorical question.)
If the X axis is a log scale of market share, what would happen if Apple and Android both had 40% market share? Both bars would overlap.
If X is cumulative market share, the bar width would depend on order and the two hypothetical 40% companies would have different widths.
If each bar has area proportional to the log, how would that work? The logs of market share are negative unless there is an arbitrary constant in there. Also the vertical breakdown doesn't make any sense in that case, because the areas of the vertical blocks don't add up to the OS total. Also small market shares would have negative width?
So can someone explain how log scale could even theoretically work here?
If the X axis is a log scale of market share, what would happen if Apple and Android both had 40% market share? Both bars would overlap.
If X is cumulative market share, the bar width would depend on order and the two hypothetical 40% companies would have different widths.
If each bar has area proportional to the log, how would that work? The logs of market share are negative unless there is an arbitrary constant in there. Also the vertical breakdown doesn't make any sense in that case, because the areas of the vertical blocks don't add up to the OS total. Also small market shares would have negative width?
So can someone explain how log scale could even theoretically work here?