Jesus isn't a mispronunciation of Yeshua, it's a transliteration. Initially the Hebrew/Aramaic ישוע was transliterated to the Greek Ἰησοῦς which is essentially a phonetic transliteration with the ending changed to the Greek masculine singular.
That was then transliterated to the Latin Iesus with basically the same deal ie phonetic with an ending change.
And that morphed into Jesus, probably about the 16th century, when the swash 'I' became a 'j' sound.
> more accurately be "Joshua"
It wouldn't really be more accurate; it would just be a transliteration through a different route. The most that can be said is that there are fewer hops.
It would still likely have most of the sounds wrong, esp if Jesus' name was originally pronounced in Galilean Aramaic. As I understand it that wouldn't have pronounced the final 'a' like an 'a' but more like a glottal stop. But that's right on the edge of my knowledge so I could have made the last bit up.
Warning! Unnecessary nit-picking incoming...
Jesus isn't a mispronunciation of Yeshua, it's a transliteration. Initially the Hebrew/Aramaic ישוע was transliterated to the Greek Ἰησοῦς which is essentially a phonetic transliteration with the ending changed to the Greek masculine singular.
That was then transliterated to the Latin Iesus with basically the same deal ie phonetic with an ending change.
And that morphed into Jesus, probably about the 16th century, when the swash 'I' became a 'j' sound.
> more accurately be "Joshua"
It wouldn't really be more accurate; it would just be a transliteration through a different route. The most that can be said is that there are fewer hops.
It would still likely have most of the sounds wrong, esp if Jesus' name was originally pronounced in Galilean Aramaic. As I understand it that wouldn't have pronounced the final 'a' like an 'a' but more like a glottal stop. But that's right on the edge of my knowledge so I could have made the last bit up.