Just to clarify - there is some technical correctness in this statement "Biblical Israel did not include any part of Egypt, nor does it contain all of Lebanon". I believe Genesis 15:18–21 says in "from the Wadi of Egypt to the great river [Euphrates]" (also see "map of Kingdom of King Solomon"). While this would suggest the "promised land" includes all the way to modern Iraq, it is true that most maps exclude the Phonecian areas around Tyre and Sidon. And the definition of "the wadi of Egypt" has been interpreted by some as the Nile, but I think this is mostly not believed. So it is most likely correct that "Biblical Israel does not contain ALL of Lebanon" and "did not include any part of Egypt", but this elides the fact that the Biblical narrative (not necessarily backed up by archeology) would extend into many neighboring countries.

[edit] To clarify - I do believe that some Israelis are motivated by a desire to occupy "Biblical Israel", but the parent comment is (a) ridiculous and (b) attributes way to many grand motivations for Netanyahu than I think are supported by evidence. (Compared to "savvy politician who says things to get votes for selfish reasons.")