Could you please expand on this? If a person got issued RSUs but they have not vested yet, wouldn't they be happy that the RSUs are going to be worth more by the time they get vested?
In a vacuum where precise numbers do not exist, maybe.
In this real scenario, if someone's goog shares were vesting at an earlier value - let's take a rough average at a glance of goog YTD to be $145, they will have lost on a year's worth of dividends at $0.2 per share. However, the current share price is $175.
So, through this maneuver, a person holding N goog shares will lose at most 3 quarters of dividends: N * 0.2$ * 3 = N * 0.6$
But they will have gained whatever the stock has appreciated, which at this moment in time works out to: N * (175-145)$ = N * 30$
What am I missing which would make the scenario above result in OP's claim of "dividends devalue issued unvested RSUs"?
EDIT: This also fails to take into account "Dividend Equivalents (DEs)", which are not factored above, and would yield extra income to the person that owns unvested shares.