Does that somehow make it not sexist? You gave the history of it but the parent comment was not arguing history. I'm not sure what your comment has to do with the parent.
Yes it does. The term, in origin, is not a topic that discrimination applies too. It merely means that in our civilisation lawful sexual intercourse is viewed to be legal through an agreement in between the husband and wife, provided it meets our sexual morales (you can't marry many relatives). Thus, he owns the legal rights for his sexual intercourse to be considered lawful. Unlike in other civilisations, for example the Mazdakian, where women were property of the state in a communist regime. Allowing legal sexual relations on a temporary basis when state condition were met. Where a man could be having legal sexual intercourse with both a mother and daughter for a few weeks. Part of the motive was that it was seen unfair that regular citizens didn't have access to the king's harems to do as they desire. Obviously, this was extremely discriminatory against women and viewed them all as only sexual objects. This is one of the greatest achievements of Abrahamic religion that such doctrines are long ago abolished.
To stress that this was the type of ownership implied. Never has it been legal right for a husband to allow a third party to have sexual intercourse with his wife, at the third party's pleasure. Despite this being the simplistic understanding of the term "his wife" may imply this.
If you want to understand terms in it's simplistic understanding, then I think you better worry about terms like sunrise/sunset.
> Thus, he owns the legal rights for his sexual intercourse to be considered lawful.
What? Since when do you need to "own the legal rights" to perform sexual intercourse? Are you saying I cannot legally have sex unless I'm married?
I'm having a hard time following what you're saying, because most of your post is just rambling. The Mazdakian? Nothing to do with us. Abrahamic religion abolishing sexist doctrines? Are you kidding me? The Bible is full of extremely sexist views. It treats women explicitly like objects.
None of your post has anything to do with my parent comment, nor the original. I feel there is a pattern here, because all of your other posts in this thread have been the same. Right now, in 2012, a man referring to his partner as "his woman" (or a woman referring to her partner as "her man") implies ownership and has a negative connotation.
By legal rights I mean for your sex not to be classed as rape. I really don't know how to correctly explain this topic. Sorry. I didn't really study these topics in English.
Islam took over Persia and put an end to Mazdakian belief. This is a credit to Abrahamic religion. The society you were born in could have been very different had Mazdak's ideas won. The concept of family would not exist and the gene pool would have very few trees. The idea of monogamous relationships are a given in our society and this is built on the success of Abrahamic religion removing competing systems almost entirely out of the conscience of human thought.
In history one could find other competing systems and the Mazdakian is just one example.
One must remember the bible was written before it's ideas were successful. To re-interpret it's ideas are after it's success may lead one to the wrong conclusions about what it actually was trying to convey. It may appear to be a lot more sexist than what it actually meant.
