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It’s an obvious strawman of arguments in favor of the iOS App Store.



It's not my serious argument, but it's not intended as a strawman. Please, I genuinely would like to know, why do those arguments apply to iOS but not to macOS? Where do you see a strawman in what I wrote?


They don't apply to iOS either. It isn't their device once someone else purchases it. Furthermore, not allowing "sideloading" and bootloader unlocking is wrong. And I'd like to see EU and other governments crack down on Apple following Apple's scummy pseudocompliance with the DMA.


Thanks, I fully agree with you, but I'm interested in hearing from someone who does think they apply to iOS but not to macOS. I'm very curious to know how they reconcile that. I suspect it will be a helpful insight into the way they think




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