The second bank has just bought - because it has enough money to do so selling its NFT or whatever - the same bonds that SVB has.
There is no difference at all between the assets of liabilities and the two banks in this example. I don’t mean just that the amounts are the same: every asset is identical.
Can both use the “I have the money but just not right now” excuse or not?
There is no difference at all between the assets of liabilities and the two banks in this example. I don’t mean just that the amounts are the same: every asset is identical.
Can both use the “I have the money but just not right now” excuse or not?