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> The laws apply to technology companies with market valuations of at least €75 billion ($80 billion)

Why didn’t the EU apply it to the top XXX companies by market capitalisation?

Or is the intent that the law should cover more companies over time due to monetary inflation?




If a matter goes to court, it is easier to prove that the defendant's capitalization is over €75 billion than to prove that it is in the top XXX companies because the latter involves determining the capitalization of all companies that might have a cap in the top XXX.




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