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If the phrase is misused 9 times out of 10, then redefine it. That's the hacker way.



If we redefine everything based on what 9 out of 10 people do, what will the 1 out of 10 do that are trying to communicate effectively using precise terminology that wait... no longer exists for the concept they're trying to convey.


Much as I sympathise with this view, communication isn't about what you say, it's about what the other person hears.


If 9 out of 10 people use it a particular way, it has already been redefined. What we're talking about here is the difference between prescriptive and descriptive linguistics: definition-oriented vs. usage-oriented.


If you're telling prescriptivists to stop prescribing, aren't you being a prescriptivist for descriptivism?

Descriptivism lets language evolve. Prescriptivism (people trying to push it back) is part of that evolution. According to your principles, you should just accept it as the way the language evolves.


Prescriptivism provides the foundation for descriptivism's point of departure, and descriptivism provides for the evolution of language. They are part and parcel to each other.


Maybe by learning a bit about etymology.


What do insects have to do with it?


It won't matter that they can't communicate, since they will have been marginalized as pedants.


This democratization of language isn't necessarily correct. There's a reason why we don't declare the existence of God as truth just because a majority of the population believes it.

There's a reason why majority rules isn't always appropriate. It's because often the majority can be wrong. We won't redefine the answer to the Monty Hall problem just because 9/10 people get the wrong answer.

If we're constantly redefining words and meanings, then why have definitions at all?


Language is dynamic, and words do change definition over time.

Having said that, I still prefer to use it correctly.


Also, I can't help but wonder if the fallacy was named based on some colloquialism to begin with.


The fallacy is named because one of the definitions for "beg" is "to evade," which is why "begging the question" can be recast as "evading the question" (although you do lose the subtle part about assuming the conclusion to prove the conclusion).


Thank you. Now I actually learned something from this conversation.


Yes, it's based on a literal translation of a latin idiom: petitio principo (IIRC). A more unambiguous phrasing is: assuming the antecedent.


On the contrary, nuance matters.




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