> The US free labor produced plenty of war material for two major wars, and enough left over to supply Britain and the Soviet Union. US troops were well fed, with plenty of gas, bullets, airplanes, ships, aircraft carriers, medical supplies, trucks, everything, and also managed to ship it all to the war zones.
A more realistic explanation of course is that the Allied powers had around 3x the population of the Axis, and that America's production infrastructure was never negatively impacted, while German and Japanese infrastructure was routinely bombed.
The UK, for example, despite not using slave labor, wouldn't have been able to win the war without US assistance, and you failed to mention the USSR at all, which beat Germany just as much as the US did, but doesn't fit the market based and slave labor free image you're trying to project.
The better explanation is that when you are already losing a war you need to eek out more production from what you have, and you're willing to sacrifice long-term things for it. Slave labor, in the short term is more efficient for some things, especially when you need the people who would normally be working in the free market to be elsewhere manning the guns. Employing slave labor didn't cause the nazis to lose WWII, at best it was coincidental, and at worst it was a response to the fact that they were already losing.
The German and Japanese homelands were not bombed until they were already losing the war.
The Nazi prosperity before WW2 was fairly limited, as the Nazis couldn't resist endless meddling with it. The suppression of the Jews surely must have had bad consequences for the economy, though I know of nobody who has attempted an accounting of it. The living standard did not approach that of the US.
> manning the guns
Don't forget that the US pressed into military service all the fit men 18-36. Didn't resort to slave labor.
(Footnote: FDR proposed forced labor in his 1945 State of the Union Address. Don't believe me? Look it up! Fortunately, that went nowhere.)
>Don't forget that the US pressed into military service all the fit men 18-36. Didn't resort to slave labor.
The irony here being, of course, that while the US courts ultimately disagreed, forcing people to join the military is arguably itself a form of slave labor. It is certainly a form of involuntary servitude.
> The German and Japanese homelands were not bombed until they were already losing the war.
The Allies had begun bombing Berlin before the US entered the war. So if your contention here was that the Nazis were losing from day one, sure. Otherwise you're not correct.
> The Nazi prosperity before WW2 was fairly limited
The German prosperity before the Nazis took power was fairly limited. That was in fact one of the primary reasons the Nazis took power in the first place.
> forcing people to join the military is arguably itself a form of slave labor
Indeed it is. But the soldiers were taken out of production in the economy, which is the point I was responding to.
> The Allies had begun bombing Berlin before the US entered the war.
Yes, the British bombed Berlin early in the war as a propaganda stunt. The US Doolittle raid on Japan was also for propaganda. They were ineffectual from a military perspective. It doesn't alter my point at all.
> The German prosperity before the Nazis took power was fairly limited. That was in fact one of the primary reasons the Nazis took power in the first place.
We both know that. The Nazis were in power from 1933-1939. There wasn't much prosperity.
> Indeed it is. But the soldiers were taken out of production in the economy, which is the point I was responding to.
Right, but the allies had more people, so there's nothing relevant about slave labor. Like I said: slave labor is a tool of last resort, when the market fails. The US had to use that tool to get enough labor in the fighting force, but still had enough humans that market systems (and propaganda) worked in the economy.
> We both know that. The Nazis were in power from 1933-1939. There wasn't much prosperity.
Then I have no clue what your point is. My point was, and continues to be, that Nazi use of slave labor was a consequence of the already relatively weaker economy. You seem to be arguing that slave labor caused the weak economy. My point is that it started weaker and remained weaker, and to try and keep up, they had to force more people to do things.
A more realistic explanation of course is that the Allied powers had around 3x the population of the Axis, and that America's production infrastructure was never negatively impacted, while German and Japanese infrastructure was routinely bombed.
The UK, for example, despite not using slave labor, wouldn't have been able to win the war without US assistance, and you failed to mention the USSR at all, which beat Germany just as much as the US did, but doesn't fit the market based and slave labor free image you're trying to project.
The better explanation is that when you are already losing a war you need to eek out more production from what you have, and you're willing to sacrifice long-term things for it. Slave labor, in the short term is more efficient for some things, especially when you need the people who would normally be working in the free market to be elsewhere manning the guns. Employing slave labor didn't cause the nazis to lose WWII, at best it was coincidental, and at worst it was a response to the fact that they were already losing.