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That the IRS is not overwhelmingly prosecuting this type of crime.

What's the basis for the converse?

What numbers don't add up?




My reasoning is that cash yields lower profits due to reduced purchases, higher insurance cost, higher crime risk.

There doesn’t seem a reasonable reason to be cash only since, even though credit has a 3% hit or whatever, people spend more with credit.

There’s a need for money laundering and that is much easier with cash only businesses.




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