Your comment is as reductionist as it is to call all slaves black.
What about Romans using Germanic slaves or ancient Greece? What about the Middle East, past and to some degree present? What about the Mongols or China?
What about Romans using Germanic slaves or ancient Greece?
British people have been enslaved at various times by the Romans, the Normans, the Vikings, the Moroccans and probably more besides. This is a matter of history that we are all aware of. But there is noone living right now who was ever a slave of a Norman nor are there any French who ever had a Saxon slave.
You are right. Smaller groups/tribes remember in many more countries. Like you said, skin color is maybe not the best example.
Take my situation: I am a German. Our slavery ("Leibeigener") cannot be seen in todays society. It cannot be seen by skin color or any other attribute.
I try to void the statement "Tell me a society which never had no slavery". My argument is: There are societies which had slaves which you cannot reflect in today society. No ones knows, no one is affected.
We have tons of other problems (like the Holocaust and tons of other crimes) we have to work on still today, but slavery among the German society (being a problem today) is no such problem. And I guess, there are many countries where this applies.
I would still consider trafficking of people slavery in everything but name and that is still going on right under our noses all over the world. Hardly anyone cares about that.
Yes. And there are enough places in the world where the "slaveowners" were those who, if I'd named them, I'd be immediately considered here as a "racist" for just mentioning the historical fact.
So... I guess we all have to learn that there are more contexts than just one.
> And there are enough places in the world where the "slaveowners" were those who, if I'd named them, I'd be immediately considered here as a "racist" for just mentioning the historical fact.
You're clearly hinting at something specific, though I don't know what it is. Mind explaining?
Also try to figure out why would the current derogatory term for slaves in South Africa have its origin in the word meaning "the unbeliever" in Arabic, i.e. one who's not an adherent of certain religion, as used in their religious texts:
