> Anything involving fines needs to be absolutely 100% infallible.
No it doesn't: not even criminal trials, with the possibility of the death sentence, are done to that standard.
It can be done to the standard of "beyond a reasonable doubt" or even "balance of probabilities" / "preponderance of the evidence" which the civil trials tends to be. Given that it's 'only' fines involved, then the latter is often used for traffic violations:
No it doesn't: not even criminal trials, with the possibility of the death sentence, are done to that standard.
It can be done to the standard of "beyond a reasonable doubt" or even "balance of probabilities" / "preponderance of the evidence" which the civil trials tends to be. Given that it's 'only' fines involved, then the latter is often used for traffic violations:
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burden_of_proof_(law)