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Just to take one example: The UK records violent crimes that are not violent crimes in the US. So yes, violent crimes are higher in the UK. But they’d soar in the US if they’d use the same definition.



Possible! Source please.

Ref:

https://americangunfacts.com/pdf/www-telegraph-co-uk.pdf

"2034[1] vs 466 Violent Crimes UK vs US per 100k people"

[1] The July 2009 Telegraph article says "over 2000"



Excellent, thank you.




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