I'm not sure that's entirely accurate, I would have assumed the chances of dying by gun assault was even lower. How was the probability of dying from a gun assault calculated? With car accidents you can generally assume random distribution, but you have to do some math with gun statistics before you can assume random distribution (remove suicides, remove gang-related deaths, etc.)
I'd be surprised if car accidents were randomly distributed.
But assuming GP is correct, or even assuming you are correct that it's an even bigger difference, I'd argue that both are way too high, and that the gun deaths even being in the same order of magnitude as car deaths is entirely preventable, and pretty shocking in itself.
