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No, it can't both be true.

In economics, if a consumer always pays as much as they are able to, IE, it is a constant willingness to pay, then this is called perfectly elastic demand.

The situation of taxes being passed in to consumers, would only happen if consumer demand is perfectly inelastic.

It is literally the opposite situation. Demand can't both be perfectly elastic and also perfectly inelastic at the same time. They are opposites!




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