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>Let's say soap actually is a medieval invention. (I see this debated, but the author seems to emphatically feel it is an important point) Doesn't that mean, pretty much by definition, that some medieval people didn't use soap? Unless they invented soap on the actual first day of the middle ages and it immediately went viral.

Well, the author already notes that in absence of soap earlier they used oil for scrubbing, and/or added herbs to the water for aroma.

>Unless they invented soap on the actual first day of the middle ages and it immediately went viral.

Well, whether it was unavailable for the first day or first couple of centuries of the middle ages is not really important for the general claim that medieval people had it. E.g. people in the last 4-5 centuries of the middle ages are still medieval people, still considered "non bathing" by many moderns, and half a millennium is still a good chunk of time.

Especially since the author already covered what e.g. Romans did pre-soap (or rather, in lieu of soap, as soap was available in the empire, but not preferred by Romans until towards the end).




I think the Germans and Gauls were making and using soap before the Romans showed up. And eventually Romans were using it too. Would seem to follow that medieval people would find soap to be unremarkable.




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