I not only don't find his examples particularly convincing, but in many cases I don't even think they are really examples of loss aversion to begin with. I've always interpreted loss aversion as "It's worse to lose something you've already attained than to miss out on something you never had in the first place."
His example of "Messages that frame an appeal in terms of a loss (eg, “you will lose out by not buying our product”) are no more persuasive than messages that frame an appeal in terms of a gain (eg, “you will gain by buying our product”)" is extremely weak IMO. In both cases the consumer never had the product to begin with. The author is trying to argue FOMO is the same thing as loss aversion, which on the contrary, FOMO is really greed.
His example of "Messages that frame an appeal in terms of a loss (eg, “you will lose out by not buying our product”) are no more persuasive than messages that frame an appeal in terms of a gain (eg, “you will gain by buying our product”)" is extremely weak IMO. In both cases the consumer never had the product to begin with. The author is trying to argue FOMO is the same thing as loss aversion, which on the contrary, FOMO is really greed.