The subject of this discussion is feudalism, so I'm not sure why you've launched into a rebuttal talking about China and the USSR in the 1960s. It isn't true that "everything that [peasants] produced belonged to the local lord."
I literally just wrote: "I speculated that feudal peasant may have been subject to the same kinds of incentives as everything they produced belonged to the local Lord."
You're the one who launched into some weird capitalist whataboutism.
Right, but that speculation is based on a misconception of the nature of feudal production. The capitalist comparison is relevant since it's the system we live under today and your original post strongly implied, although it did not outright state it, that the problem you were describing is unique to societies which aren't capitalist (in fact I can remember hearing in middle school the exact same argument as an explanation of the eventual triumph of the First World over the Second, which I think is at best a wild oversimplification).
