Then the government taking a criminal's drug money would also be theft?
Also, he took it from a government wallet, not directly from a criminal.
Edit: Just to clarify, I was just pointing out that the comment I replied to is tangential(1- he didn't steal from a criminal. 2- 'someone' can 'seize' a criminal's money without it being theft.).
He obviously stole -this isn't even a case of trying to steal; he stole, and got caught- and I don't get how he can get away with such a small punishment for stealing $10M+.